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Quant's title: Quantitative Finance Stack Exchange

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I am trying to use Quandl data futures for backtesting some trading scenarios, specifically Wiki Continuous Futures.

Following the documentation, I understand that the data-set contains continuous contracts named by the following convention CHRI...


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Recently, I had the opportunity to be a guest at the interest rates trading desk at a big investment bank in my country. One thing I noticed was that the rates traders constantly monitor the forward rate curve (1-day forward curve) and sometimes adjust it. And it didn’t seem like they were adjusting it only to correctly build the projection of the floating leg payments in IRS...


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In my research on the economies and financial markets of developing countries, I have repeatedly encountered market behavior that is difficult to reconcile with the assumptions of conventional financial theory.

Inflation and interest rates can reach exceptionally high levels, exchange rates may undergo abrupt and substantial fluctuations, and asset prices often respond...


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I understand lookahead bias is pretty common industry knowledge. But I cannot wrap my head around how I am introducing it and could use a nice and easy explanation. Here's my thought process.

I have $N$ data points of OHLC data. Lets say for the sake of argument I pull $t = 1$ to $N$ from a database.

I train a model on the closing price of this instrument to p...


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Basically the title question: I know that the price of a future contract is $$F(t,T)=S(t)e^{(r+u-q)(T-t)}$$ and that this is derived using arbitrage arguments. Why wouldn't volatility of the underlying commodity not be used in the formula? If futures can be "simulated" by a mix of call and put options, whose pricing formulas do take into account volatility, is it just a big c...


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